Search from various English teachers...
Posts
I don't really understand these two sentences..what do they mean?
The two sentences:
It vests sovereignty in the Spanish people as a whole, not in the inhabitants of its constituent parts. The Catalan government claims the right to self-determination.
It's from an article in the economist.
the whole paragraph is as follow:
The Spanish constitution, adopted by referendum in 1978—and backed almost unanimously in Catalonia—proclaims the
country’s “indissoluble unity”. It vests sovereignty in the Spanish people as a whole, not in the inhabitants of its constituent parts. The Catalan government claims the right to self-determination. But international law recognises this only in cases of colonialism, foreign invasion or gross discrimination and abuse of human rights. These arguably do apply to the
Kurds, who are planning to hold a disputed referendum on secession from Iraq on September 25th (see page 38).
5
0
"Por todos lados" y "Por todas partes", are they the same or have nuance?
5
0
Vice, deputy, assistant, sub-,associate ... do they have any difference between each other ?
2
0
Predestined & destined …are they different ?
One more example : predominant & dominant....
Do words with a" pre- "prefix have any difference between their original forms?
I feel much confused..... ⊙_⊙
2
0
What's the difference between feasible, practical and practicable ?
2
0
What's the difference between penmanship, calligraphy and handwriting ?
4
0
What's the difference between in the first place and at the first place?
4
0
What's the difference between simpático and amable in Spanish?
7
0
请问“参加”和“参与”有区别吗?
如果有区别,那么它们的区别是什么呢?
15
0
A higher proportion of Americans go on to higher education than is the case in Britain.
It's a sentence from the oxford advanced learner's English-Chinese Dictionary..... and it keeps confusing me...what's the structure of that sentence? And are there any words omitted? Thank you for your answers!
6
0
Show more
