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- "Who is ignoring whom?" is correct. She is ignoring him. Use "who" when the answer is "he" or "she" or "they" Use "whom" when the answer is "him" or "her" or "them" To whom should I give this cake? Give it to him. Who is the manager of this store? She is. Please give this to whomever you wish. Ok. I will give it to them. I am going to find whoever is responsible for this. They are responsible for this. Many native speakers don't even know the difference, though, and whom is pretty uncommon. In my first example, you would almost certainly hear someone say "Who should I give this cake to?" (another reason this sentence is not grammatically correct is the fact that it ends with the word "to" which is a preposition, and you are not supposed to end a sentence with a preposition. However, both of these grammar rules are largely ignored in everyday conversation and even in somewhat-formal written communication)0 votedNovember 29, 20190
- "Where could she be?" is more of a rhetorical question (a question that does not necessarily need a response). It's more of a thought to oneself (whether in your mind or spoken out loud), but could be asked to another person who is also in search of her so that maybe the two people who are looking could share ideas of where they think she is. "Where is she?" is more of a direct question to elicit a response from someone. For example, if you know that someone has taken her somewhere, but you do not know where, you would say "Where is she?" rather than "Where could she be?" "Where is she?" could really be used in either scenario, but "Where could she be?" makes sense only in the first scenario.0 votedNovember 29, 20190
- Why is the word "non" in this sentence? (Italian) Tillie studiava i compagni - il loro andare e venire, i loro momenti dimenticati e gli errori commessi per leggerezza - piu' di quanto non si fossero mai studiati loro stessi. I believe the last section of that sentence is supposed to be translated as "more than they had ever studied themselves". I also believe that the phrase "piu' di quanto" simply means "more than" (although I'm not sure why the "quanto" is needed. Wouldn't "piu' di" suffice?) So why is it "piu' di quanto NON...." Am I translating the sentence wrong or missing some grammatical rule that says I have to use "non" in this case? Or is it simply a pleonastic case with "piu' di quanto" vs "piu' di quanto non", as in the case of finche/finche non? Thanks!November 29, 201920
- Not much. "Going to" sounds more natural and common to me, but they both mean the same thing. Will is perhaps a bit more formal. I would tend to use "will" in a professional document like a resume or formal letter, but you could absolutely use "will" in a casual conversation without sounding weird.0 votedNovember 21, 20190
- The first two pairs are interchangeable. The last two pairs are not quite interchangeable. To overlook can mean "to not see (even though you were trying to see and failed)" but it can also mean "to see something, but you choose to ignore it" When you say "You should not notice" it means that you should intentionally try not to see it at all. Do not use "an" before happy. Use "a" If the word after "a" or "an" SOUNDS like a vowel (A,E,I,O,U) sound, then use "an". If the word after "a" or "an" sounds like a consonant, use "a" I think the reason so many people use "an" before words that begin with H, is because Europeans have a hard time pronouncing the sound that the letter H makes, So when they say the word "happy" it tends to SOUND like "appy" because they cannot pronounce the H. And since the a/an rule is based on the SOUND of the next word, and "appy" SOUNDS like it begins with a vowel when they pronounce it, they use "an". Sadly, I am seeing more and more native English speakers in the United States say things like "AN historic event" when this is completely wrong. Examples: a ball a cat a red fish an owl an hour (uses AN because in this case the H in hours is silent and so it begins with an O sound) an easter egg a hippo (uses A because in this case the H is pronounced and so it does not begin with a vowel sound)0 votedNovember 21, 20190
- 1. "If I learned all the English grammar rules, I would be very pleased" is correct and, without a specific context, would generally be interpreted as someone who hopes to eventually (at some point in the future) learn all of the English grammar rules. In this case, even though "learned" is the past tense, it is implied that the person is talking about the future because of the conditional statement "would be" in the second half of the sentence. The person is not pleased now, but once they have learned all of the English grammar rules, they will be pleased. You could also use the present tense and say "If I learn all the English grammar rules, I would be very pleased" to the same effect. "If I had learned all the English grammar rules, I would have been very pleased" is also correct, but definitely refers to a situation in the past. For example, a student who was trying to learn English, but is not doing so anymore, might use this sentence to describe how they felt at the time that they were trying to learn English. "If I had learned all of the English grammar rules, I would be very pleased" does not sound quite right. It sounds like it is a mix of the first two. The first half sounds like is describing the past, while the second half sounds like it is describing the a future condition that has not yet occurred. Overall, it does not seem like a terrible mistake and you would still be understood. 2. "If the second conditional was not called 'second conditional', it might have another name" is correct. "Was" is correct in this sentence because the subject (the second conditional) is singular. "Were" would only be used for a plural subject. For example, "If verbS were not called verbs, they might have another name" Another singular example, "If a noun was not called a noun, it might have another name" The subject (a noun) is singular and therefore the verb (was) is in the singular form.0 votedNovember 21, 20194
- "Pathogenic organisms recognize no BOUNDARY lines" " no boundries lines" is incorrect. It means that pathogenic organisms do not stop spreading because of any rules, laws, customs, or something else. They do not care about anything and they will only try to replicate and spread as much as they possibly can with no regard for anything else. Therefore, it is likely for them to spread across the entire world. There is nothing that binds them in one area. There is nothing that stops them from spreading. There is nothing that can contain them to one region. Thus, they recognize no boundary lines.0 votedNovember 21, 20190
- How does one design products by taking advantage of a brand's value and realizing commercial success? To understand the details of the products, I worked as a Content Operation Intern in Tencent Music, which gave me the view of both a user and a platform operator. I took charge of selecting and managing over 100 network anchors. The most difficult part of my job was searching for high-quality network anchors. One way that I accomplished this was by inviting KOLs (what are KOLs? You might want to explain this to the reader if you aren't sure if they will understand) from other platforms to ours, which strengthened my ability to communicate and negotiate. I noticed that digital marketing, driven by social media, was a win-win situation for both users and platform operators. The platform, offered by social media apps, gave users the opportunity to share their experiences, which also increased daily activity and other profits for this app. Drawing up a proper strategy was essential for my success, whether it was for increasing the users' exposure or improving KPI for the platform operators. Conducting user research, analyzing the data, and promoting the plan helped to grow my critical-thinking skills and has prepared me well for this position. An important note: I did the best I could without any details about your background or what you are trying to do. With that said, while my paragraph is certainly grammatically correct, it may sound confusing or vague to someone like me who is not sure of what you are trying to do or what work you did in the past.0 votedNovember 20, 20190
- "Know of" is better in this context. "Know" implies that you know them personally. Example: Do you know John? (Do you know him personally? Have you met him? Are you friends with him?) I know OF him (I am aware of John's existence, but I do not know him personally. I have never talked to him, but may know his name or have seen him before) So when you say "I don't know one Italian painter...." it implies that you don't know any Italian painters PERSONALLY, though it is possible that you may know OF one Italian painter (who you have never met, but is maybe very famous, historically).... "making a painting" and "painting a painting" are both grammatically correct, but I would probably use "making a painting" or "doing a painting" just to avoid saying the word "painting" twice in short succession.0 votedNovember 20, 20190

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