Yes and no. As you may know. Ambiguity and double standards lf granmar and pronunciation are rife throughout the english language. #'s 1 & 2 are the exact same question worded differently. They are also both correctly used. #3, for most purposes can be the same as 1 & 2, but you should knkw that American English speakers use the word "Holiday" differently than most other English speaking peoples. In the USA (where I'm from) The wod "Holiday" refers more directly to days of celebrations of religiously or nostalgically significant days, as well as celebrating peoples, places, traditions and so forth (IE: Christmas , New Years, Haloween, etc) We dont use the word holiday very oftento describe a time away frkm work, school and/or home. Especially when centralized around a trip. We tend to use the word "Vacation" to describe these events. Thats the only way that #3 isnt exactky synonymous with #1 and #2 per American dialedt. Its a small difference though, so most any Americans would understand what youre trying to say in all 3