what's the difference, if any, between "to be tormented" and "be tormented"?
I found in a Greek dictionary the expressions “to be in an agony, be tormented” translating a certain Greek word. I wonder if the author could have used ‘to be tormented’ instead of ‘be tormented’. In other words, a native speaker can see any difference between these two forms, with and without ‘to’?
Thanks

Question

what's the difference, if any, between "to be tormented" and "be tormented"?
I found in a Greek dictionary the expressions “to be in an agony, be tormented” translating a certain Greek word. I wonder if the author could have used ‘to be tormented’ instead of ‘be tormented’. In other words, a native speaker can see any difference between these two forms, with and without ‘to’?
Thanks

Answer

I think it's just a question of economy; putting a "to" only at the beginning of a list of verbs lets one use less paper and ink (or bits and bytes).

Answer

I dont know

Answer

Give us an example sentence, please - otherwise there's no point in giving an explanation.

Answers · 3

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