Is this causative structure?
The whole sentence is:
I should've had her fall asleep standing up.
"had her fall asleep standing up" - Is this part a causative structure? If so, then what is the meaning of it? Can I use the verb "let" here instead of the verb "had" ?
Search from various English teachers...
Answers · 4
1
I would recommend rephrasing this sentence. Right now, "should've had" is expressing an unfulfilled past obligation rather than allowing someone else to do something. The "should've had" is a past modal verb, which expresses a feeling of regret that you did or did not do something.
To rephrase:
I let her fall asleep on her own.
I let her fall asleep by herself.
I let her fall asleep standing up.
Notice how I use the word "let" instead of "had." This is now a basic causative form. You are now allowing her to fall asleep without taking direct action yourself.
We can combine the past modal and the causative to create:
I should have let her fall asleep standing up.
I hope this helps you!
0
Thank you! So even native speakers wouldn't use the verb "have" this way.
0
I think this sentence is confusing to an English speaker. Is the sentence referring to a child? If it refers to a baby or small child, one might say "I should have let her fall asleep on her own."
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