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Japan flagKyouko
Is this “years' “used as a possessive noun ? I read newspaper and found the sentence I am not sure. “after three-and-a-half years' travel “ This time, I think, years' is used as a possessive noun, right?

Answers · 10

2
That's right. This means the same thing as "three-and-a-half years of travel". The apostrophe tells you that it's possessive, but since it is also plural, the apostrophe is put after the "s"
2
Hi Kyouko, We use "... years' travel “ to show that "years" is connected to or is a part of "travel". It shows some kind of possession and we can also call it the genitive case. Another example: Picasso's works (the art pieces are no longer possessions of Picasso. However the apostrophe s expresses works that originate from Picasso. From this perspective, this can be a genitive case).
0
Hi, Yes it is being used as a plural possessive because the apostrophe (') is after the "s" rather than before, which would make it a singular possessive.
0
Hi Angela, thank you for your answer. I did not know this structure is unusual phrase.
0
Yes. This structure is not common in American English.

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