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Egypt flagGehan
I haven’t slept or I haven’t been sleeping for 2 days I’m just wondering what is the difference between the following 2 sentences? I haven’t slept for 2 days. I haven’t been sleeping for 2 days. The context is about someone regrets about a mistake he has made. and when can I use each of them?

Answers · 4

2
If it's due to regret, then your first sentence is more correct. The difference between the two depends on the context. "I haven't slept for 2 days" could be a situation where someone has been too busy or too stressed to sleep at all during the past 48 hours. "I haven't been sleeping (well) for 2 days" could imply that someone has slept poorly the last two nights. They slept some, but not enough or not their usual amount.
1
"I haven't slept in 2 days."
0
I haven’t slept for 2 days. -refers to the time in which you normally sleep I haven’t been sleeping for 2 days - refers to the entire length of time, meaning the entire past 48 hours
0
I haven't slept for 2 days

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