The author is imagining Jon's reaction?
“You rode with these wildlings,” said Thome. “Mance Rayder knows you. He will be more inclined to trust you.”
That was so wrong Jon _might have laughed_. “You’ve got it backward. Mance suspected me from the first. If I show up in his camp wearing a black cloak again and speaking for the Night’s Watch, he’ll know that I betrayed him.”

Source: Game of Thrones
Hi, everyone. I think the underlined part implies that Jon didn't actually laugh. By "might have laughed", the author is just imagining Jon's reaction.
Is my thinking right? What is your opinions?

Thank you.2. “He’s dead!” Joffrey sounded so proud and happy you _might have thought_ he’d skinned Robb Stark himself.
3. Years before, he had so insulted her that now Miss Pitty never spoke of him except in guarded whispers and with so great reticence that a stranger _would have thought_ the honest old lawyer a murderer, at the least.

And I think the underlined parts in 2 and 3 are the same use as "Jon might have laughed": imaginary reaction, right?

Question

The author is imagining Jon's reaction?
“You rode with these wildlings,” said Thome. “Mance Rayder knows you. He will be more inclined to trust you.”
That was so wrong Jon _might have laughed_. “You’ve got it backward. Mance suspected me from the first. If I show up in his camp wearing a black cloak again and speaking for the Night’s Watch, he’ll know that I betrayed him.”

Source: Game of Thrones
Hi, everyone. I think the underlined part implies that Jon didn't actually laugh. By "might have laughed", the author is just imagining Jon's reaction.
Is my thinking right? What is your opinions?

Thank you.2. “He’s dead!” Joffrey sounded so proud and happy you _might have thought_ he’d skinned Robb Stark himself.
3. Years before, he had so insulted her that now Miss Pitty never spoke of him except in guarded whispers and with so great reticence that a stranger _would have thought_ the honest old lawyer a murderer, at the least.

And I think the underlined parts in 2 and 3 are the same use as "Jon might have laughed": imaginary reaction, right?

Answer

You are correct in believing that Jon did not actually laugh. The meaning of "Jon might have laughed" is to indicate just how wrong Thome is. If they author had left that part out we would still know that Thome is wrong. But adding that it was so wrong that it was laughable shows that Thome was very very wrong. Essentially the author is just adding emphasis on how wrong Thome was. It's the same with the other two examples, the author is just adding extreme emphasis.

Answers · 1

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