Almost 1 in 2 children HAVE one (computer)
Hey guys! I've just met this sentence "Almost 1 in 2 children HAVE one (computer)". I don't understand why they use HAVE instead of HAS, as there is "1" like a subject. but "2 children" is an object. I suppose so.
Could you explain me this grammatical misunderstanding for me?
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Answers · 6
2
Hi Julia,
it's because it doesn't mean just 1 child has a computer - 'almost 1 in 2 children' means almost half of all children, which is obviously a huge number of children. That's why they have used the verb in the plural. Hope that helps..!
Melanie
0
I'm not a teacher, but I think it's because "two children" are a plural- so two children have a computer, but when it's one child, we use "has".
There are two children, and they both HAVE a computer.
There is one child, and he HAS a computer.
Hope this helps!
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