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Russia flagJulia
Almost 1 in 2 children HAVE one (computer) Hey guys! I've just met this sentence "Almost 1 in 2 children HAVE one (computer)". I don't understand why they use HAVE instead of HAS, as there is "1" like a subject. but "2 children" is an object. I suppose so. Could you explain me this grammatical misunderstanding for me?

Answers · 6

2
Hi Julia, it's because it doesn't mean just 1 child has a computer - 'almost 1 in 2 children' means almost half of all children, which is obviously a huge number of children. That's why they have used the verb in the plural. Hope that helps..! Melanie
0
I'm not a teacher, but I think it's because "two children" are a plural- so two children have a computer, but when it's one child, we use "has". There are two children, and they both HAVE a computer. There is one child, and he HAS a computer. Hope this helps!

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