why is a complete tense used here?
(1)Many criminals reoffend after they have been punished.
(2)Many criminals reoffend after they are punished.
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What is the difference between these two? are they both OK?

Question

Answer

There isn't really a difference. The first one if probably better, as the punishment has been completed, so you should use 'have been'.  But both make sense

Answer

I think there's no difference. The first one emphasizes that the action took place AFTER their punishment (:

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