2nd question of the same NPR news.
here's the link to the page: http://www.npr.org/templates/transcript/transcript.php?storyId=505592181
The 8th sentece from the top; I would say that the failure of the United States to take any steps at all - this has certainly aggravated the problem, and its given the Russians, the Assad regime and Iran the sense that they have a - have an absolutely free ride to do anything they want to civilians. I can't read the sentece structure correctly. I didn't have any problem with reading it to the word; the problem but I don't get why it says "its" after that.
Considering my knowledge, the "its" needs a noun after so the "the sense that~" is the noun modified by the "its"??
I want to know to what word modifys "the sense".
thanks in advance.
Search from various English teachers...
Answers · 3
1
It's a typo, it should be "it's", contraction of "it has".
0
As for "the sense", the "that" clause coming after it explains it (or the clause is the "sense").
So, "it's given the (Russians, ...) the sense (that they have an absolutely free ride ...)" means it's given them the impression that they have an absolutely free ride. It's the same type of usage as in "What do you think about the idea (that we go one a round-the-world trip)" - the that-clause is the idea.
0
its give the Russians = it has give the Russians
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