Are indirect objects a grammatical requirement? (le)
In the sentence
"Le doy la manzana a John" (I give the apple to John).
Does one have to use the indirect object of "le"? I realize that "a John" acts to clarify who the indirect object is referring to, but does an indirect object have to be used whenever there is one, even if the object is named elsewhere?
TL;DR
Is "Doy la manzana a John" right? Why not?
Search from various English teachers...
Answers · 9
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In this sentence " a John" is the object direct, because in a sentence you can not find an indirect object alone, so "Le" acts like that. For checking this
"Le doy la manzana a John -> Se la doy. "Se" is the indirect objetct and "La" direct object.
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Agradecido* Yo también
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jajajaj disculpe justin. Estoy agadecido por Fernando
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(Fernando's second answer)
I hope this helps:
When the pronoun functions as the indirect object, you use the forms le, les (singular and plural, respectively), independently from the gender of the word that the pronoun is referencing.
Examples showing that le and les are used even with the noun (e.g. madre) is feminine.
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I would like to be able to give you reasons, but many times we know how it is but we don't know the grammatical reason.
The correct one is:
Le doy la manzana a John.
(In case someone has trouble translating Fernando's answer)
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