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What's the logic of this explanation ?? Over the last 40 years there has been a great increase not only in the number of agricultural pesticides in use but also in the care and sophistication with which they are used by farmers. Nevertheless, the proportion of agricultural crops lost to certain pests worldwide has increased over the same period, even when the pests concerned have not developed resistance to existing pesticides. Why the following sentence can serve as an explanation for how improvements in pesticide use have been accompanied by greater losses to certain pests? As pesticides have become increasingly pest- specific, controlling certain pests with pesticides has turned out to cost more in many cases than the value of crop losses caused by those pests.

Answers · 3

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There are other factors as well for loss of crops. Weather conditions, quality of soil etc have their effects of crops yield. The pest may not have increased resistance against pesticides but farms have lost many things to counteract against the pests
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Or more technically in the development of agriculture by somehow, we have to consider about another way to prevent pests increasing, but also pesticides used for pests, such as with food chain for sweet corns in crops. (^-^)
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Survival of the fittest. The pesticides only kill a certain number of pests. Those survived have less competition and became stronger.

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