I know vt.+O., but how did you explain about vt.+prep.
And he caused large sums of money to be given to both the weavers in order that they might begin their work directly.

Why did describe " to be given to "? given is P.P ?

上一句英文 ,为什么要写成 to be given to? give是及物动词,后面不是不能跟介词,应该直接跟宾语吗? 还有为什么要用give的过去分词?

Question

I know vt.+O., but how did you explain about vt.+prep.
And he caused large sums of money to be given to both the weavers in order that they might begin their work directly.

Why did describe " to be given to "?  given is P.P ?

上一句英文 ,为什么要写成 to be given to? give是及物动词,后面不是不能跟介词,应该直接跟宾语吗? 还有为什么要用give的过去分词?

Answer

'to be given' is a passive infinitive - to + be + past participle

They gave the money TO the weavers

The verb 'give' has two objects in this situation. The money is the direct object, and the weavers are the indirect object. We need the preposition 'to' to indicate that the weavers are the indirect object.  This is the passive form:

The money was given TO the weavers.

The sentence in your text involves a passive infinitive, but the construction is the same:

(sums of money) to be given to the weavers

[to be given] (verb phrase) [ to both the weavers] (complement)

I hope this answers your question.

Answer

That is passive.. to + be+ past participle
It is nothing to do with prepositions.

Answers · 2

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