Please explain to me..
As I read the newspaper, I found a grammatically irregular term. See the following sentence.
People watching a live sports game like a European League soccer match won't have to suffer the frustration of a slow feed or disconnection thanks to the stronger connectivity.
The question is why there are two verbs in that sentence "won't have to suffer" and "thanks". I don't get it.
Search from various English teachers...
Answers · 11
3
Hi James, in this sentence "thanks" is not being used as a verb. It is like saying "due to" or "because of." So, you could write instead: People watching a live sports game like a European League soccer match won't have to suffer the frustration of a slow feed or disconnection due to the stronger connectivity.
I hope this helps!
1
People
watching a live sports game
like a European League soccer match
won't have to suffer the frustration of a slow feed or disconnection
thanks to the stronger connectivity.
"have to" is a modal verb here, have to suffer = unavoidable, "don't have to suffer" -- present tense, "won't have to suffer" -- future tense
here "thanks" isn't a verb, it's the equivalent of "due to"
1
"(They) won't have to suffer..." There's nothing irregular about this at all. The "won't have to" part works the same was as "won't be forced to/made to/obliged to".
Jared's explained the use of "thanks to" pretty well, and once again this is a regular and common expression.
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