Why the artical use 'p.p.' other than 'to verb?'
I read a part of newpaper: In a study involving more than 400,000 people, those who exercised for 90 minutes a week were also 14 percent less likely to have died after eight years than those who were inactive.
I have no idea why the artical use 'to have died' rather than ''to died'? Is that a common way to analyze a data?
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Answers · 6
1
"to died" is simply wrong in English grammar. The main thing is that you have a deadline of sorts (after eight years), so you are putting the action (to die) in relation to that later time. Perfect tense is needed.
0
Because we are talking about 8 years later.
This guy has died.
This guy hasn't died.
The use of "has died" brings the listener into that point of time.
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